I would say, ambivalent.
(Philosophical approach, not political).
People demand for equality, but how could such thing exist when all beings come to their existence differently?
I know, politically there are rights and laws to overlap equality and difference or enforce equality to difference, but what if people demand for equality that would be possible only through the absence of difference?
Since the feeling of inequality is usually sparked out of difference, how do we know to what extent difference stay within the scope of equality? – only when it contributes pleasure?
But we ask for equality, don’t we? Then why isn’t difference that results in suffering also equal to the one that results in pleasure?
Hmm, well we have just come to a conflict over another question: which pleasures or sufferings are better or worse than one another?… Apparently, we will never have a fair measurement for this stuff.
So where exactly does the concept of equality/inequality exist? I only see the place for difference.
On a side note, I am also wondering whether historically the concept or the terms of equality/inequality is precedent (I should read Plato‘s and Aristotle‘s works more then).
After all, perhaps the most possible thing people could ask for is least inequality, rather than equality… no?
God! I think I cannot put an end to this discussion (with myself) and it looks impossible to just go on, I may need to walk through it again with somebody tomorrow.
Note: I did not write this stuff in favour of neither Utilitarianism nor Anti-Utilitarianism nor Plato nor Aristotle nor any other ideologies/thinkers (My knowledge is still too limited to favour one side over the other), I just tried to talk with my conflicting thoughts. Also, I approached them at around 10:30 PM. when my brain almost fully stopped its function… or maybe it already stopped!